How Hume's recommendations disrupt Kant's dogmatic slumber


Kant's philosophical progress was based on the German tradition of rationalist metaphysics, and this was the dogmatic slumber. Hume broke the dogmatic slumber by demonstrating the relevance of knowledge claims as well as the difficulties in explaining them. Hume contends that humans lack a rational foundation for believing in every effect as having a cause, but we do so out of habit. As a result, Hume's skepticism motivates Kant to seek a more solid foundation in metaphysics. What Kant wants to do with the concept of cause and effect or does he want to do the same with other concepts and where does the concepts spring?


Despite David Hume with his conclusions on epistemologically in that we can only observe constant events which are conjunctions and apparently finding it as unproblematic, Kant did not. Though Kant had interests in philosophy, he also had interests on natural sciences. Kant demonstrates with an example of pouring water into a jar as it causes an overflow. The actions based on cause and effect as determined in time are observable. By this he wanted to demonstrate the concept of action.


The difference between the a priori/a posteriori distinction and analytic/synthetic distinction


The a priori/a posteriori distinction basically is to do with things that we know or the cognitions. It definitely differentiates between the knowledge that one may have prior to the experience and knowledge he or she gain from experience. The analytic/synthetic on the other hand is a distinction which deals with judgments. It basically differentiates between the judgment which comes up with two different concepts and the judgment that is trivial.


Whose account is most convincing between Hume and Kant and why?


Based on Descartes, on Hume or Kant, one knows the self via reasons. From Hume, one knows the self via experience, while from Kant; one knows self via a synthesis based on rational intuition as well as experimental content. Hume's account was more convincing than Kant as overall philosophy was due to the response left by David Hume. Though Kant's concept based on synthetic a prior maybe seen as being an attempt to answering the problem of Hume's based on induction. Not only Hume had a large contribution influencing philosophy development generally, but particularly on Kant and this underscores the attempts in claiming that Kant's influence as much more significant than Hume's.


Humboldt and other philosophers have argued that the language of each culture has the basic categories as well as structures that are used by the people of that culture. This is true as also Benjamin Whorf agrees with the Humboldt and other philosophers on their believes. It is actually what people of the culture have to use so as to understand as well as comprehend on what experience they have.


Will the triangle be able to convince other creatures of the Flatland that it is not the universe? Why or why not?


Yes the triangle will be able to fully convince the creatures on Flatland as those creatures believe that it is the world. The flipping of the triangle by the cubes to the space that is above Flatland will help in 3rd dimension experience.

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